Curmudgeonly Clerk has a post up on the problems with libertarian views of the judiciary, mainly assailing Sandefur's (IMO, masterful and accurate) conception, both historical and theoretical, of the proper role of the judiciary.
Let's begin.
It is not clear to me why we should read a principle enunciated in 1859 back into the Constitution, but I am sure that libertarians have all sorts of selective quotations from the founding fathers that, notwithstanding their incompatible historical conduct, demonstrate that they were all committed closet libertarians
Notwithstanding the relative snark of this statement, it is no substitute for actual, proper originalist argument demonstrating that the principles enunciated by modern libertarians were in fact relatively close to those held dear by the Founders. Given that I had thought CC was a committed originalist, it is relatively surprising to me that he takes a somewhat dismissive tone to the ample historical evidence Sandefur has and does produce supporting his point. If Sandefur's conception is inaccurate, by all means, demonstrate it, but I'm not sure how dismissing it really advances CC's position.
Assume libertarianism; everything else follows . . . In the absence of a shared libertarian moral consensus, assertions that "x" violates the harm principle simply fail to persuade
Hmm. As far as this is a general critique of first principles, I don't have much argument with this. But CC's point, as I take it, is far more than a general ethical critique of first principles; he believes that the first principles he espouses (those resonant in majoritarianism) are preferable to those espoused by a libertarian like Sandefur or myself. Thus, to simply state the point that unless one assumes a first principle the conclusions are not likely to follow, while accurate, does little to advance the merits of CC's position, because, unless I am mistaken, he is advocating the adoption of different first principles than the ones a libertarian is likely to take as true.
In the end, society's rough moral calculus, however flawed, is about all we have when it comes to first principles.
This is an interesting perspective, but a dangerous one, IMO. In any case, I disagree that the proper derivation of first principles should arise wholly out of the will of the majority. And then CC makes what I perceive as the fatal move to his position:
Those dissatisfied with the arithmetic always have the democratic process for pressing for a recalculation.
As I've argued before, this is simply fallacious. IMO, this is the stress fracture, the weak point of CC's position.
Let's assume that law X is passed, supported by a majority of state Y's voters (yah yah, representatives, work with me here). Now, let's say that X unconstitutionally discriminates against a minority group Z. CC thinks that the legislative process is a better guarantor of Z's rights than the judiciary. But how can that be? If the majority Y likes the statute, and wishes to keep it around, what can Z do? A constitutional amendment is no help, since they often require supermajorities, and even if they don't , they at least require A majority.
Legislative process only helps group Z if it is in the majority, or of it can obtain a majority of the votes. But if they can't, and if we assume that X is truly and actually unconstitutionally discriminatory, then they're stuck up TP's Creek.
Thus, to rely on majoritarian processes to correct majoritarian abuses is fallacy, IMO. Under these circumstances, the only remedy has is to look to the one branch of government, that since its inception (or at least since Marbury), was intended to curb the worse majoritarian abuses.
CC anticipaties this move, and he has a response:
The immediate difficulty with this response is that it fundamentally distorts the concept of tyranny (i.e., "a government in which absolute power is vested in a single ruler") beyond recognition. "Tyranny of the Majority" is, in fact, a rhetorical flourish and nothing more. Majority rule, by definition, cannot constitute tyranny.
Let me just say that I very much enjoy CC's blog, his rhetorical style, and his precision. But this is without question the most absurd statement I have ever heard him make. Is CC really trying to argue that because the etymological semantics of 'tyranny' rely on the notion of one ruler, it is impossible for a majority to act in a tyrannical manner? That is so preposterous I'm nothing short of flabbergasted that CC advanced it. I would think that regardless of the roots of the word 'tyrant,' it is certainly not too far-fetched to postulate that majorities can and do exhibit tyrannical behavior, given the abundance of historical examples of such behavior.
Even if we assume that CC is correct, and that a majority cannot actually be tyrants, it certainly does not follow that the set of conduct and actions fairly described as tyrannical cannot apply with perfect sense and meaning to actions and conduct taken by a government of the majority.
I refuse to seriously entertain the notion that CC really disagrees with this. And in any case, where the Supreme Court has 9 members, by his own reasoning, judicial tyranny is a semantic impossibility as well. This is not a strong thesis by any measure, IMO.
Ultimately, I think it is reasonable to contend that as a matter of course, the unfettered will of the majority can be dangerous, to say the least. Our Founders certainly thought so, which is precisely why they vested a judiciary with power to act as a check against the worst kind of majoritarian abuses.
But I am afraid that those who expect the law to correct such injustices would have it supplant the role of moral and political suasion (however that not fully rational process is understood to operate).
This is a legitimate concern, but it is not an attack on a libertarian conception of the judiciary per se as much as it is a reminder that moral and politiclal suasion is needed in addition to judicial reservation of minority rights (i.e., liberty interests). All well and good; democratic process is fabulous, IMO, but as I said before,
Democracy is rule by the majority, plain and simple. If it is the majority that is doing the tyrannizing, then I cannot see how it follows that majority rule will check that tyranny. It is the cause of that tyranny, the locus of its power. It is the fuel, not the retardant.
UPDATE: CC responds here. Sandefur rebuts here. I trust it is obvious whose perspective I align with.